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\begin{document}

\title{Lecture 31}

\maketitle 
Last time we stated the following theorem.  Let us now prove it.

\begin{thm} \label{T:Pois} (Poisson summation) Choose a Haar measure $\mu$ on G such that $\mu(G/\Gamma) = 1$.  Then
$$
\sum_{\gamma \in \Gamma} f(\gamma) = \sum_{\hat \gamma \in {\Gamma}^{\bot}} \hat f(\hat \gamma).  
$$
for all "sufficiently regular" f.
\end{thm}

\begin{proof} Let us first note that for any well-behaved function $\phi : G \to \Bbb C$, we have by Fubini's theorem,
$$
\int_{G} \phi(g) \, d\mu(g) = \int_{G/\Gamma} \sum_{\gamma \in \Gamma} \phi(g + \gamma) \, d\mu(\dot g) \hspace{.10in} \mbox{*}.
$$
Let $f: G \to \Bbb C$ be given (i.e well-behaved.  This means $f \in C_{0}(G, \Bbb C)$ ) and define $F: G \to \Bbb C$ by
$$
F(g) = \sum_{\gamma \in \Gamma} f(g + \gamma).
$$
Note that $F(g + \gamma) = F(g)$, $\forall \gamma \in \Gamma$.  Thus we can regard F as a function on the coset space i.e. $G/\Gamma \to \Bbb C$.  Now take its Fourier transform i.e. consider $\hat F: \hat{(G/\Gamma)}$ $\to \Bbb C$.  So
$$
\begin{aligned}
\hat F(\hat \gamma)
& = \int_{G/\Gamma} F(\dot g)\hat \gamma(\dot g) \, d\dot\mu(\dot g) \\
& = \int_{G/\Gamma} \sum_{\gamma \in \Gamma} f(g + \gamma) \hat\gamma(\dot g) \, d\dot\mu(\dot g) \\
& = \int_{G/\Gamma} \sum_{\gamma \in \Gamma} f(g + \gamma)\hat\gamma(g + \gamma) \, d\dot\mu(\dot g) \\
& = \int_{G} f(g) \hat\gamma(g) \, d\mu(g) \hspace{.05in} \mbox{by *} \\
& = \hat f(\hat\gamma).
\end{aligned}
$$
Thus 
$$
\hat F(\hat\gamma) = \hat f(\hat\gamma). \hspace{.05in} \hspace{.05in} \mbox{**}
$$

Now do Fourier Inversion for $G/\Gamma$ and $\Gamma^{\bot}$.  Thus we have
$$
\begin{aligned}
F(g)
& = \sum_{\gamma \in \Gamma} f(g + \gamma) \\
& = \sum_{\hat\gamma \in {\Gamma}^{\bot}} \hat F(\hat\gamma)\hat\gamma(-g) \\
& = \sum_{\hat\gamma \in {\Gamma}^{\bot}} \hat f(\hat\gamma)\hat\gamma(-g) \hspace{.05in} \mbox{by **} 
\end{aligned}
$$

Taking $g = 0$ and so $\hat\gamma(0) = 1$, we obtain $\sum_{\gamma \in \Gamma} f(\gamma) = \sum_{\hat\gamma \in {\Gamma}^{\bot}} \hat f(\hat\gamma)$.
\end{proof}

\begin{rem} \label{R:theta} {\em Let us consider an important application of Poisson summation,  the transformation formula for $\theta$-series.  Define 
$$
\theta(t) = \sum_{n \in \Bbb Z} e^{-{\pi}tn^2}
$$ 
where $t \in \Bbb R$ and $t > 0$.  Note that $\theta(t)$ converges.  Here $G = \Bbb R$, $\Gamma = \Bbb Z$, $\mu = $ Lebesgue measure, and $\mu(\Bbb R/\Bbb Z) = 1$.  We have seen that $\hat G = \Bbb R$.  For each $y \in \Bbb R$, we associate a character,  
${\rm X}_{y}(x) = e^{-2{\pi}ixy}$.  Now what is ${\Bbb Z}^{\bot}$?  Well,
$$
{\Bbb Z}^{\bot} = \{y \in \Bbb R: {\rm X}_{y}(\Bbb Z) = 1\} = \{y \in \Bbb R: e^{-2{\pi}iyn} = 1, \forall n \in \Bbb Z \} = \Bbb Z.
$$
Now, let $f(x) = e^{-{\pi}tx^2}$.  We {\rm claim} that $\hat f(y) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{t}}e^{\frac{-{\pi}y^2}{t}}$.  Assuming this claim, let us do Poisson summation to get
$$
\sum_{n \in \Bbb Z} f(n) = \sum_{m \in \Bbb Z} \hat f(m).
$$
And so 
$$
\theta(t) = \sum_{n \in \Bbb Z} e^{-{\pi}tn^2} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{t}} \sum_{m \in \Bbb Z} e^{\frac{-{\pi}m^2}{t}} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{t}} \theta(\frac{1}{t}).
$$
} 
\end{rem}

\begin{thm} \label{T:Jac} $\theta(t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{t}} \theta(\frac{1}{t})$.
\end{thm}

To prove the {\rm claim} in the above Remark, we will need the following.

\begin{lem} \label{L:stuff} Let $a$,$b \in \Bbb C$ where Re$(a) > 0$.  Then 
$$
\int_{\Bbb R} e^{-ax^2 + 2bx} \, dx = (\frac{\pi}{a})^{1/2}e^{\frac{b^2}{a}}
$$
where Re$(\frac{\pi}{a})^{1/2} > 0$.
\end{lem}

Assuming this lemma, let us prove the {\em claim}.  So
$$
\begin{aligned}
\hat f(y) 
& = \int_{\Bbb R} f(x)e^{-2{\pi}ixy} \,dx \\
& = \int_{\Bbb R} e^{-{\pi}tx^2}e^{-2{\pi}ixy} \,dx \\
& = \int_{\Bbb R} e^{-{\pi}tx^2 - 2{\pi}ixy} \,dx \\
& = (\frac{1}{t})^{1/2}e^{\frac{-{\pi}y^2}{t}} \hspace{.05in} \mbox{by Lemma \ref{L:stuff} where $a = {\pi}t$, $b = -i{\pi}y$}.
\end{aligned}
$$

Now let us see the lemma.
\begin{proof} Recall $J = \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-x^2} \,dx$.  So $J^2 = \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-x^2} \,dx \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-y^2} \,dy = \int_{0}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-(x^2 + y^2)} \,dxdy $.  Using polar coordinates, we have 
$$
\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\int_{0}^{\infty} re^{-r^2} \,drd\theta = \frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \,d\theta = \frac{\pi}{4}.
$$
So $J = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}$ and thus $\int_{\Bbb R} e^{-x^2} \,dx = \sqrt{\pi}$.  Now
$$
\begin{aligned} 
\int_{\Bbb R}e^{-ax^2 + 2bx} \,dx
& = \int_{\Bbb R}e^{-a(x - \frac{b}{a})^2 + \frac{b^2}{a}} \,dx \hspace{.05in} \mbox{by completing the square} \\
& = e^{\frac{b^2}{a}}\int_{\Bbb R} e^{-a(x - \frac{b}{a})^2} \,dx \\
& = e^{\frac{b^2}{a}}\int_{\Bbb R} e^{-au^2} \,du \hspace{.05in} \mbox{letting $u = x - \frac{b}{a}$} \\
& =  e^{\frac{b^2}{a}} \frac{1}{\sqrt{a}}\int_{\Bbb R} e^{-w^2} \,dw \hspace{.05in} \mbox{letting $w = u\sqrt{a}$} \\
& = (\frac{\pi}{a})^{1/2}e^{\frac{b^2}{a}}
\end{aligned}
$$
\end{proof}
\end{document}